I wonder if the following assertion in true:
Conjecture. Let $X,Y,Z$ be infinite-dimensional Banach spaces such that both $Y$ and $Z$ are crudely finitely representable (c.f.r. for short) in $X$. Then $Y\oplus Z$ is c.f.r. in $X$.
Remark some equivalent formulations of the above conjecture.
(A) For every infinite-dimensional Banach space $X$, $X\oplus X$ is c.f.r. in $X$.
(B) For every infinite-dimensional Banach space $X$, $X\oplus X$ is isomorphic to a subspace of an ultrapower of $X$.
I guess this question could be connected with those of whether a Banach space isomorphic to its square (solved in the negative by Figiel and later improved by Gowers). But perhaps it is much simpler.
Thanks in advance.