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From this question, and the answer thereof, we can see that every real valued function on reals is a sum of two injective functions. Is the same true if we replace injectivity by surjectivity.

For continuous functions, we could use weierstrass polynomial approximation to get our desired answer (I hope), or some harmonic analysis. For discontinuous, much worse, for non-measurable functions, is it possible?

Extending this, is it possible to write a function as a sum of two bijective functions. Any hints?

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3 Answers 3

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Here is a simple proof that every function is the sum of two surjective functions.

Pick any onto functions $g:[0, \infty) \to \mathbb R$ and $h: (-\infty, 0) \to \mathbb R$. Extend them to onto functions $\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ as follows: $$ g(x)= f(x)-h(x) \qquad \forall x < 0\\ h(x)= f(x)-g(x) \qquad \forall x \geq 0\\ $$

Note: It is actually possible to show any function $f$ can be written as $f=g+h$, where $g,h$ are surjective and satisfy the Intermediate Value Property. This can be done via the standard argument that each function on $\mathbb R$ can be written as the sum of two functions with the IVP.

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  • $\begingroup$ But then, every such $f$ will be surjective right? $\endgroup$
    – vidyarthi
    Commented Jan 4 at 17:17
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    $\begingroup$ I suggest you edit to omit the O, E stuff and just keep the simplification argument, which seems very clear. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 17:33
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins Done :) $\endgroup$
    – Nick S
    Commented Jan 4 at 18:45
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins In the Conway 13 function, pick $g(x)=r$ or $h(x)=r$ only if it is a well-formed integer after an odd/even number of places. Or if the number of "special" characters is odd/even. Otherwise chose $g+h=f$. $\endgroup$
    – Nick S
    Commented Jan 4 at 18:51
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, or just look at the parity of the first symbol after it becomes well formed, and then omit that symbol (which is a little closer to your original E O idea). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 19:22
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The bijective case is impossible. As a counterexample consider

$$ f(x)= \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } x = 0 \\ 0 & \text{otherwise.} \end{cases} $$

Now consider the $x$ such that $h(x)=-g(0)$.

$x\neq 0$ since otherwise $f(0)=g(0)+h(0)=g(0)-g(0)=0≠1$.

Thus

$$f(x)=g(x)+h(x)=0$$

$$g(x)=-h(x)$$

$$g(x)=g(0)$$

But this implies $x=0$ by bijectivity of $g$. We have a contradiction.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are you the twitter user? $\endgroup$
    – vidyarthi
    Commented Jan 5 at 5:01
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    $\begingroup$ @vidyarthi yes. $\endgroup$
    – user520113
    Commented Jan 5 at 11:44
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The answer is yes.

Theorem. Every function $f:\newcommand\R{\mathbb{R}}\R\to\R$ is the sum of two surjective functions, $f=g+h$. Indeed, we can find such $g$ and $h$ that are surjective on every nontrivial interval.

Proof. Enumerate the reals in order type continuum $\R=\{x_\alpha\mid\alpha<\frak{c}\}$. We define $g$ and $h$ in stages, so that at every stage, fewer than continuum many values have been specified. To ensure surjectivity, we look at $x_\alpha$, and define $g(a)=x_\alpha$ for some $a$ for which $g(a)$ is not yet specified, and $h(a)=f(a)-g(a)$, and similarly $h(b)=x_\alpha$ and $g(b)=f(b)-h(b)$ for some $b$ similarly not yet used. And we also make sure $g(x_\alpha)$ and $h(x_\alpha)$ are defined, if they haven't yet been, by using $f(x_\alpha)/2$ for each. At each stage, the domains of the approximations to $g$ and $h$ are the same.

This defines two functions $g$ and $h$, and they will both be surjective, because at stage $\alpha$ we specifically placed $x_\alpha$ into their ranges, and we will have $g(x)+h(x)=f(x)$ for every $x$, since we ensured that property every time we defined another value of $g$ or $h$.

A simple modification of the argument will enable $g$ and $h$ to be surjective even when restricted to any interval, no matter how small. The reason is that we can enumerate the $x_\alpha$ along with rational intervals, and find $a$ and $b$ within the desired interval. $\Box$

The argument uses the axiom of choice, but perhaps there is an effective construction as in the injectivity question.

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  • $\begingroup$ My older eyes blurred the subscript a bit, so, just to say it explicitly, in $g(a) = x_\alpha$, it's an $a$ in the argument but an $\alpha$ in the subscript. (And I think "$a$ not yet specified" should perhaps be "$a$ not yet used", as with "$b$ not yet used".) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jan 4 at 16:42
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice Thanks, I've edited for clarity. And yes about $a$ and $\alpha$, the point being that we've placed $x_\alpha$ into the range of $g$ at stage $\alpha$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 16:44
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks! And how about bijective. Will this construction not work (albeit with essential modifications)? $\endgroup$
    – vidyarthi
    Commented Jan 4 at 16:45
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, I'm thinking it might be modifiable for bijective. But there are a few interferring obstacles... Perhaps someone else will figure it out? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 16:46

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