I would like to ask about an equivalence between two definitions for the Cartan Model. Let $G$ be a connected Lie group, let $\mathfrak{g}$ be its Lie algebra and let $M$ be a $G$-manifold. The Cartan model of $M$ is the $\Omega_G(M) := \{ a \in S(\mathfrak{g}^*) \otimes \Omega(M) | a \text{ is invariant} \}$.
- First definition of invariant uses an action of derivations of the Lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$ on $\mathfrak{g}^*$ and $\Omega(M)$. On $\mathfrak{g}^*$ the action is given by $L_{x_i}(u^k) = - c^k_{i j} u^j$ where $(x_i)$ is any base of the Lie algebra, $(u^i)$ is its dual basis and $c^k_{ij}$ are the structure constants of the Lie bracket for $(x_i)$ basis. We extend on $S(\mathfrak{g}^*)$. On $\Omega(M)$ the action is the Lie derivative $L_X(\omega) := \mathcal{L}_{\overline{X}}(\omega)$ of the induced vector field of the action $\mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{X}(M)$. Finally, we form the diagonal action on tensor product. In that case the invariant elements are those that $L_X(a) = 0$ for each $X \in \mathfrak{g}$.
- The second definition is by using $G$-actions. The action induced by the Coadjoint representation on $\mathfrak{g}^*$. Namely, $g \cdot u := Ad^*_{g}(u) = u \circ Ad^*_{g^{-1}}$ and we extend on symmetric algebra. On $\Omega(M)$ by the induced action of $G$, the pullback of translations. Namely $g \cdot \omega := (l_{g^{-1}})^*(\omega)$. We also form the diagonal action on tensor product. In that case invariant elements are those that $g \cdot x = x$ fro any $g \in G $
I know that by connectedness a form $\omega \in \Omega(M)$ is $G$-invariant if and only if $L_X(a) = 0$ for each $X \in \mathfrak{g}$.
Also, I think I proved that the $\mathfrak{g}$-action of antiderivations on $\mathfrak{g}^*$ is the coadjoint action of Lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$ which is the induced Lie algebra morphism of the Lie group homomorphism of the coadjoint representation $ G \xrightarrow{Ad^*} GL(\mathfrak{g}^*)$ which commutes with exponential map. But I am not even sure for the latter proposition.
My problem is that even with these assumptions I struggle proving any direction of equivalence, for elements on the tensor product $ S(\mathfrak{g}^*) \otimes \Omega(M)$.
Fist, is there an equivalence between these definitions? If so, how do I prove this for elements on tensor product?
(I asked the same question on MathStack)