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Let $E$ be a Euclidean vector bundle over the unit ball centered at the origin $B^n(0)$. Let $\nabla$ and $\nabla'$ be two metric connections such that the curvatures coincide globally, i.e. $F_\nabla\equiv F_{\nabla'}$. Is it true that there exists a Gauge transformation mapping one connection into the other? (maybe up to considering a smaller ball/analytic connections?)

If I am not mistaken, if we knew that the holonomy groups of the two connections coincide, then the result should follow from the Reduction Theorem (Theorem 7.1 Kobayashi--Nomizu Foundations of differential geometry). However we only know that the Lie algebras coincide (by Ambrose--Singer Theorem). Can we reconstruct the actual groups locally?

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    $\begingroup$ Since the ball is simply connected, the holonomy groups should be connected and, hence, determined by the Lie algebras. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 21, 2023 at 19:47
  • $\begingroup$ I agree with that but there are a couple of doubts: 1) the Lie group is the same but the representation might be different, 2) a connected Lie group is not determined by its Lie algebra unless it is simply connected $\endgroup$
    – F.T.
    Commented Apr 21, 2023 at 20:07
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    $\begingroup$ Here the Lie group really means a Lie subgroup of the general linear group. Ditto for the Lie algebra. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 21, 2023 at 20:12
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, but there might be different subgroups (diffeomorphic to the same Lie group) in GL(n,R), right? $\endgroup$
    – F.T.
    Commented Apr 21, 2023 at 20:23
  • $\begingroup$ Of course, but this is irrelevant for the purpose of your question. My suggestion is for you to read the statement of Cartan's theorem on the curvature and holonomy Lie algebra and understand exactly what it says. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 21, 2023 at 20:35

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The answer is 'not always'. Here is a simple case where you cannot recover the connection up to gauge transformation from the curvature: Let $n=2$, let the rank of $E$ be $m$, and, since $E$ is trivial over $B^2(0)$, we might as well take it to be $E = B^2(0)\times\mathbb{R}^m$, i.e., trivialized. Then $F$ is just a $2$-form with values in $\mathfrak{so}(m)$, and a connection $\alpha$ is a $1$-form on $B^2(0)$ with values in $\mathfrak{so}(m)$. If $F$ is the curvature of $\alpha$, we have $\mathrm{d}\alpha+\alpha\wedge\alpha = F$. If $F = f\,\mathrm{d}x^1\wedge\mathrm{d}x^2$ and $\alpha = a_1\,\mathrm{d}x^1+a_2\,\mathrm{d}x^2$, then this becomes the simple partial differential equation $$ \frac{\partial a_2}{\partial x^1}-\frac{\partial a_1}{\partial x^2} +[a_1,a_2] = f. $$ If you specify $a_1$ (for example), this becomes a linear first order partial differential equation for $a_2$, so there are many solutions, no matter what $F$ is. Essentially, you get to choose an arbitrary function $a_1$ on $B^2(0)$ with values in $\mathfrak{so}(m)$ and then you get to choose $a_2(0,x^2)$ arbitrarily. So $F$ certainly does not determine $\alpha$.

Well, what about up to gauge transformation? Suppose that $\beta$ be another connection with curvature $F$. Then $\mathrm{d}\beta+\beta\wedge\beta = F$. If $\beta$ were gauge equivalent to $\alpha$, then there would exist a map $g:B^2(0)\to\mathrm{SO}(m)$ such that $\beta = g^{-1}\mathrm{d}g + g^{-1}\alpha g$. This would imply that $F = g^{-1}Fg$, so $f = g^{-1} f g$.

If $f\equiv0$, this is no condition, but if $f$ is 'generic' in the sense that, at each point $p\in B^2(0)$, the centralizer of $f(p)\in\mathfrak{so}(m)$ is a maximal torus in $\mathrm{SO}(m)$, then $g(p)$ would have to take values in that maximal torus. When $m>2$, a maximal torus is a proper subgroup of $\mathrm{SO}(m)$, so the only possible gauge transformations that could work would be very restricted, too restricted to be able to account for the arbitrariness in $\alpha$.

To fix ideas, take $m=3$ and assume that $f\equiv f(0)$ is a nonzero constant function on $B^2(0)$. Then $\beta$ could be gauge equivalent to $\alpha$ only if the gauging function $g$ took values in the maximal torus (a circle) consisting of the elements of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$ that commute with $f(0)$. That forces $g$ to take values in a circle, so it depends on only one function of two variables, but $\alpha$ depends on three functions of two variables, so the vast majority of the solutions to $\mathrm{d}\alpha + \alpha\wedge\alpha = F$ will not be gauge equivalent.

In fact, one can find a solution $\alpha_1$ that has holonomy in the maximal torus and a solution $\alpha_2$ whose holonomy is all of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$: Let $$ F = \begin{pmatrix}0&\mathrm{d}x_1\wedge\mathrm{d}x_2&0\\ -\mathrm{d}x_1\wedge\mathrm{d}x_2&0&0\\ 0&0&0 \end{pmatrix} $$ while $$ \alpha_1 = \begin{pmatrix}0&x_1\,\mathrm{d}x_2&0\\ -x_1\,\mathrm{d}x_2&0&0\\ 0&0&0 \end{pmatrix} \quad\text{and}\quad \alpha_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 0&0&\phantom{-}\mathrm{d}x_1\\ 0&0&-\mathrm{d}x_2\\ -\mathrm{d}x_1&\mathrm{d}x_2&0 \end{pmatrix}. $$

In dimension $n=3$, generically, there will be many connections $\alpha$ with a specified curvature $F$, and, when $m>2$, the generic $F$ will have the property that two connections with curvature $F$ will be gauge equivalent only when they are equal.

Meanwhile in dimensions $n >3$, for the generic $F$, the equation $\mathrm{d}\alpha + \alpha\wedge\alpha = F$ will completely determine $\alpha$ algebraically by the Bianchi identity $\mathrm{d}F = F\wedge\alpha-\alpha\wedge F$. Thus, a 'generic' curvature determines its connection, and not just up to gauge equivalence.

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