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Let $X$ be a variety over perfect field $k$ and $x \in X$ some closed reduced point. (at this point I'm not 100% percent sure if it's neccessary to assume $x$ to be reduced, ie that it's stalk is reduced)

My question is following:

Is there a relatively 'elementary' argument to show the existence of a regular hypersurface $Z \subset X$ containing $x$?

What I tried:

Idea no 1: Since $k$ is perfect field a closed point of $X$ is regular if and only if it is smooth. The locus of regular points is not empty and the locus of smooth points is open, therefore under the locus of regular points $X_{reg} \subset X$ is open too. Inside $X_{reg}$ we can always find a regular hypersurface $Z' \subset X_{reg} $. Even the approach appears to me to be most natural and elementary there there is an obvious problem I not know how to overcome: Does this $Z'$ extends to regular hypersurface $Z \subset X$? If $x$ is not regular in $X$ this approach may not work.

Idea no 2: If $X$ is quasi-projective we can pass to algebraic closure $X_{\overline{k}}:= X \times \text{Spec} \ \overline{k}$ and invoke the Theorem of Bertini which says that for quasi-projective $X_{\overline{k}} \subset \mathbb{P}^N_{\overline{k}}$ a general hyperplane section $H \cap X_{\overline{k}}$ is smooth. Any hyperplane $H \subset \mathbb{P}^N_{\overline{k}}$ defined over $k$ with $H \cap X_{\overline{k}}$ smooth solves the problem.
Doubts if that's the most quick approach : I'm not sure if Theorem of Bertini gives the most simple way to find such a regular hypersurface $Z \subset X$ containing $x$, because it gives an much stronger statement that $Z$ can be choosen to be a hyperplane section $H \subset X$ with a $H \subset \mathbb{P}^N$. But hot every hypersurface comes as hyperplane section, so it may suggest thatthere may be a more 'elementary' way to construct such regular hypersurface $Z \subset X$ containing $x$ without invoking too 'deep' facts.

Motivation: In a comment here Qing Liu wrote that it not always possible to find such hypersurface if the field $k$ is imperfect, and in turn the natural question is why such regular hypersurface $Z \subset X$ containing $x$ always exist if $k$ is perfect? And how 'obvious' is it to see this?

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  • $\begingroup$ There are two slightly different questions that you can ask: (Local question) Given a regular point on a scheme is there a divisor that contains this point which is smooth at that point. (Global question) Given a smooth variety over a perfect field and a point of this variety, is there a smooth hypersurface that contains this point. One cannot, as you appear to be doing, put a regularity condition for the ambient scheme only at the point and ask for global regularity of the divisor. $\endgroup$
    – Kapil
    Commented Mar 24, 2023 at 14:07
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    $\begingroup$ @Kapil: the first one looks doable, if $R= \mathcal{O}_{X,x}$ is the stalk on $x$, then one can take as divisor $V(f)$ for $f \in \mathfrak{m}_x-\mathfrak{m}_x^2$. If we assume $R$ be regualr, then $R/f$ is regular in $x$ and the regularity of $V(f)$ extends to an open nbhd of $x$. $\endgroup$
    – JackYo
    Commented Mar 24, 2023 at 14:31
  • $\begingroup$ The global question is about local equations of effective divisors (since if we assume $X$ to be smooth, therefore normal, so Weil divs= Cartier divs), and therefore about smoothness of general member of a linear system. For ample linear systems that's essentially Bertini $\endgroup$
    – JackYo
    Commented Mar 24, 2023 at 14:53
  • $\begingroup$ In your last sentence sentence you mentioned that one cannot put a regularity condition for the ambient scheme only at the point and ask for global regularity of the divisor. I'm confused, in original question I even not assumed that the ambient space $X$ should be smooth at $x$. So you suggest, that in such case is not reasonable to ask if $x$ is contained in a smooth hyperplane? Is it wrong? So it can happen that for reduced $x \in X$ with base field $k$ perfect, the point $x$ is NOT contained in a smooth hypersurface? Do you know a counterexample? $\endgroup$
    – JackYo
    Commented Mar 24, 2023 at 14:59
  • $\begingroup$ Let $C$ be an irreducible curve which is singular at $p$. We look at $X=C\times C$ and $x=(p,p)$ in $X$. Then every curve in $X$ that passes through $x$ will be singular. $\endgroup$
    – Kapil
    Commented Mar 24, 2023 at 16:23

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