Consider a function $h$ defined on real numbers, which is not of the form $kx+b$ i.e. a linear function. If $h$ maps rational numbers to rational numbers and it maps irrational numbers to irrational numbers, could $h$ be analytic? If so, how to give an example?
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9$\begingroup$ $x\mapsto kx+b$ is rather called an affine function than a linear function ($b=0$) $\endgroup$– YCorCommented Nov 10, 2022 at 6:20
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1$\begingroup$ See the MSE question Functions that take rationals to rationals. $\endgroup$– Dave L RenfroCommented Nov 10, 2022 at 10:01
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1$\begingroup$ Don't rational functions answer your question? $\endgroup$– BumblebeeCommented Nov 11, 2022 at 4:17
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2$\begingroup$ @Bumblebee: they have the same problem as a generic polynomial - can take irrational number to rational number, e.g. $(x^2+1)/(x^2-1)$ takes $\sqrt{2}$ to $3$. $\endgroup$– M.G.Commented Nov 11, 2022 at 14:36
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2$\begingroup$ @YCor It's annoying, but a degree-1 function is often called linear in the context of (constant, linear, quadratic, cubic, ...). Also in US schools when solving "simultaneous linear equations" using "linear algebra". The function $x\mapsto x+2$ is not linear but the polynomial $x+2$ is linear. Yuk. $\endgroup$– Adam ChalcraftCommented Nov 11, 2022 at 17:39
2 Answers
Answering a question of Erdos, Barth and Schneider proved that for every countable dense sets $A$ and $B$ in the complex plane, there exists an entire function such that $f(z)\in B$ if and only if $z\in A$.
K. Barth and W. Schneider, Entire functions mapping arbitrary countable dense sets and their complements to each other, J. London Math. Soc., 4 (1971/72) 482-488.
Another paper of the same authors concerns the case when $A$ and $B$ are on the real line. They prove that for every two such countable dense sets, there is a transcendental entire function that maps $A$ into $B$ monotonically.
MR0269834 Barth, K. F.; Schneider, W. J. Entire functions mapping countable dense subsets of the reals onto each other monotonically. J. London Math. Soc. (2) 2 (1970), 620–626.
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1$\begingroup$ We might expect that this construction can be performed with an entire function with real coefficients, assuming that, e.g., $A,B$ are invariant under conjugation and meet $\mathbf{R}$ in a dense subset? Unfortunately I don't have access to this paper, LMS and/or Oxford Academic trying to make money out of this 1972 paper. $\endgroup$– YCorCommented Nov 10, 2022 at 13:15
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1$\begingroup$ @YCor: Yes, and I suppose that if $A$ and $B$ are symmetric, and $B$ is closed with respect to addition and division by 2, then it is easy to show from existence of one such function, the existence of one mapping reals to reals: I added this simple argument to my answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 10, 2022 at 13:26
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2$\begingroup$ YCor: I found another paper of the same authors which treats the case when A, B are subsets of the real line. See my amended answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 10, 2022 at 14:55
Let $q_n$ be a numbering of the rationals, with $q_1=0$. We can define a non linear, analytic function $F:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ which is strictly increasing and that maps $\mathbb{Q}$ surjectively to $\mathbb{Q}$, so it is as you want.
The function $F$ can be defined as $\sum_{n=1}^\infty p_n(x)$, where $p_i$ are certain polynomials that satisfy the following conditions:
$F_n(x):=\sum_{i=1}^np_n(x)$ is strictly increasing, in fact, $F_n'(x)\geq\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2^n}$. This implies in particular that $F_n:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is bijective.
$F_n(q_i)\in\mathbb{Q}$ for all $i\leq n$ and $F_n^{-1}(q_i)\in\mathbb{Q}$ for all $i\leq n$. Moreover, letting $A_n=\{q_1,\dots,q_n,F_n^{-1}(q_1),\dots,F_n^{-1}(q_n)\}$, we will have $F_{n+1}|_{A_n}=F_n|_{A_n}$. This ensures that $F|_{A_n}=F_n|_{A_n}$, so $F$ maps $\mathbb{Q}$ bijectively into $\mathbb{Q}$.
$p_n\in\mathbb{R}[x]$ $\forall n$, and seeing $p_n$ as elements of $\mathbb{C}[x]$, we have that $|p_n(z)|<\frac{1}{2^n}$ for all $z\in B(0,n)\subseteq\mathbb{C}$. This ensures that $\sum_np_n$ converges locally uniformly in all $\mathbb{C}$, so $F$ is analytic.
Let's try to create such a sequence $F_n$ of polynomials: let $F_1(x)=x$ and suppose we are given $F_{n-1}$ satisfying the hypotheses above. To construct $F_n$ first consider the polynomial $f_n(x)=\prod_{a\in A_{n-1}}(x-a)$. If necessary multiply $f_n$ by $x$ to ensure that it has odd degree: this implies that $f_n'$ has a lower bound. Let $G_n=F_{n-1}+\varepsilon f_n$, where $\varepsilon\geq0$ is small and such that $G_n^{-1}(q_n)$ is rational. Now let $g_n=\prod_{a\in A_{n-1}\cup\{G_n^{-1}(q_n)\}}(x-a)$, multiply it by $x$ if necessary as before, and let $F_n=G_n+\delta g_n$, where $\delta\geq0$ is small and ensures that $F_n(q_n)$ is rational.
We can make $\varepsilon,\delta$ so small that $|\varepsilon f_n+\delta g_n|<\frac{1}{2^n}$ for all $z\in B(0,n)$ and $(\varepsilon f_n+\delta g_n)'(x)\geq\frac{-1}{2^{n}}$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$, so that $F_n'(x)\geq\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2^n}$ by induction hypothesis.
To make sure that $F$ is not linear, you can first take $\delta\neq0$ at some step so that $F_n$ is non linear and then make the $p_k$, with $k>n$, have very small norm in some disk so that $F=F_n+\sum_{k>n}p_k$ cannot be linear.
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1$\begingroup$ The argument you posted is a special case of the proof of Theorem 3 of our paper Sparse Analytic Systems, and that argument (as we mention in that paper) owes a heavy debt to Nienhuys-Thiemann. $\endgroup$– Sean CoxCommented Jan 31, 2023 at 14:33
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$\begingroup$ So basically $z\in B(0,n)$ means that $|z|\leq n$? $\endgroup$– SomniumCommented Sep 27 at 14:46
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1$\begingroup$ Yes. (extra characters because comments need to be 15 characters long) $\endgroup$– Saúl RMCommented Sep 27 at 15:07