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Let $\mathcal X$ be either a subset of $\mathbb R$ equipped with Lebesgue measure or a countable set with counting measure. The Gibbs' principle in statistical physics asserts that if $(X_1 , \dots, X_n) \in \mathcal X^n$ is distributed uniformly on $$ \left\{ (x_1,\dots,x_n)\in \mathcal X^n: \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n f_a(x_i) \in [m_a, m_a+\delta], \quad a=1,\dots,k \right\} $$ where $m_1,\dots, m_k$ are fixed, then as $n \rightarrow \infty$ and then $\delta \rightarrow 0$ , $X_1, \dots, X_n $ are asymptotically i.i.d. with the marginal law $$ P_X(x) \propto e^{\sum_{a=1}^k \lambda_a m_a(x)} \tag{1} $$ where $(\lambda_a)$ are such that $$ \mathbb E[f_a(X)] = m_a \tag{2} $$ Note that $P_X$ is also the probability law with maximum entropy subjected to the constraints (2).

This is not a mathematical theorem, it works for a lot of cases in physics and there are cases where it fails. For the physicists, asymptotically i.i.d. means that they can do the calculations with the easy i.i.d. distribution instead of the uniform distribution and get the same result.

One interesting example (https://arxiv.org/abs/1011.4043) in which this prniciple fails is when $\mathcal X = (0, \infty)$, with $k=2$,$f_1(x) = x$, $f_2(x) = x^2$, $m_1=1, m_2 > 2$, then as $n \rightarrow \infty$, for any fixed $k$, $(X_1,\dots,X_k)$ converges in law to $(Z_1, \dots, Z_k)$, where $Z_i \stackrel{i.i.d.}{\sim} \text{Exp}(1)$.

Now take $\mathcal X = \mathbb R$, $k=2, f_1(x) = x^2, f_2(x)=x^3$, then Gibbs' principle fails since there is no real-valued random variable with density $P_X(x) \propto e^{ax^2+bx^3}$. Which result can be obtained in this case? Does the uniform law behave like a more simple law as $n \rightarrow \infty$?

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    $\begingroup$ How do you define this uniform distribution? How do you do the quartic case? Why is it significantly different from the cubic one? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2022 at 18:53
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for your response. Also, do you mind sharing how this problem arises? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2022 at 19:46
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    $\begingroup$ A uniform distribution on a compact manifold makes sense once a Riemannian metric has been defined on it. I presume that the metric here is the one inherited from euclidean space — is that right? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 14, 2022 at 0:42
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    $\begingroup$ I guess the answer should be that the distribution is obtained by maximizing entropy over random variables satisfying $\mathbb E(X^2)=1$ and $\mathbb E(X^3)=m$? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 14, 2022 at 9:50
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    $\begingroup$ By analogy with Sourav's result, it would be natural to conjecture that you're again asymptotically i.i.d. normal, but that one of the $x_i$'s will typically be about $(mn)^{1/3}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 14, 2022 at 17:02

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