Let $p$ be some prime. Let $f \colon \mathbb{Z}_p \to \{0,1\}$ be some function, and define the function $g \colon \mathbb{Z}_p \to \{\pm 1\}$ as $g(x) = (-1)^{f(x)}$.
What can be said about Fourier spectrum of $f$ vs. $g$? Namely, does $\widehat{f}(\alpha)$ related to some $\widehat{g}(\beta)$ for some $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{Z}_p$?
I wanted to prove that they are equal in some sense, as the functions are just isomorphic to each other, but couldn't prove it yet.
As a more general perspective, take any two functions $f, g \colon \mathbb{Z}_p \to \mathbb{C}$ such that $f(x) = m(g(x))$, where $m \colon \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ is some isomorphism. What can be said about $\widehat{f}(\alpha)$ vs. $\widehat{g}(\alpha)$ (for some $\alpha \in \mathbb{Z}_p$)?