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What are some examples of equivalences whose canonical unit/counit fail to satisfy the triangle identities?

It is common knowledge that not all equivalences satisfy the triangle identities, but that any equivalence can be refined by swapping out its unit (or counit) with a different one to form an adjoint equivalence which does satisfy the triangles while leaving both functors intact, so all functors that are part of an equivalence are also part of an adjoint equivalence.

I'm curious about equivalences where the canonical unit and counit do not satisfy the triangle identities -- the meaning of canonical here is hopefully canonical, but to be more precise I mean that the unit and counit that are 'obvious' to write down do not satisfy the triangles and need to be modified using the refinement to adjoint equivalences to do so.

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    $\begingroup$ It deserves to be said that lots of examples of equivalences don't really come with a canonical unit / counit at all -- you just select one at random after showing that a functor is full, faithful, and essentially surjective. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 3:32
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    $\begingroup$ @TimCampion I'm not sure about that. In my experience a lot of equivalences are constructed by giving two functors and two natural isomorphisms. And even when it's phrased as a proof of ff+eso, the proof of eso generally proceeds by constructing for each $y$ a specific $x$ and a specific isomorphism $fx\cong y$, which then canonically determines the structure of a functor on $y\mapsto x$ and a unit and counit for an adjoint equivalence. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 6:27
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    $\begingroup$ I tend to agree with Mike — the proof that ff+eso iff antiparallel functors and natural isos provides a formula for getting a unit and counit out of a ff+eso functor, and as Mike points out if we have the eso part explicitly given we have an adjoint equivalence determined. $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 6:48
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    $\begingroup$ That's how I interpreted your comment, Tim, but maybe worth adding that even the "inverse" functor is selected "at random", and not just the unit/counit. A more typical example is where the inverse functor is produced by constructing (co)limits. Of course we can give a general construction of (e.g.) a colimit of sets, but there isn't anything particularly canonical about one construction over all the other ones. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 15:02
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    $\begingroup$ @TimCampion It's true that there are artificial examples like that, but I don't think they arise very often in nature. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 15:40

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Let's start with a functor $U:{\mathcal A}\to{\mathcal X}$ that's full and faithful. Bypassing questions of Choice, it's also essentially surjective on objects in the sense that there is a function $F:{\mathsf ob}{\mathcal X}\to{\mathsf ob}{\mathcal A}$ along with an assignment of an isomporhism $\eta_X:X\to U F X$ to each object $X$.

From these data, for each morphism $f:X\to Y$ of $\mathcal X$, we define $F f:F X\to F Y$ as the unique $\mathcal A$-map such that $$ \eta_X^{-1};f;\eta_Y = U(F f), $$ in other words such that $\eta$ is natural. It is easy to check that $F$ preserves identity and composition.

It remains to define $\epsilon$. For one of the triangle laws we require $U\epsilon_A=\eta_{U A}^{-1}$, which uniquely defines $\epsilon_A$ since $U$ is full and faithful. Naturality of $\epsilon$ follows from that of $\eta$.

The other triangle law is $\eta_{U A};U\epsilon_A={\mathsf id}$, for which it suffices that this hold with $U$ applied, since that's full and faithful.

By naturality of $\eta$ and the first triangle law, we have $$ \eta_X;U F\eta_X; U\epsilon_{F X} = \eta_X;\eta_{U F X}; U\epsilon_{F X} = \eta_X $$ but $\eta_X$ is invertible an $U$ is full and faithful, so the other triangle law holds.

In other words, the obvious data for "full, faithful and essentially surjective on objects" yield an adjoint equivalence.

So what other kind of equivalence is there? If the isomorphism $\eta$ in "essential surjectivity" is to be natural, it can only be as above. However, the other isomorphism $\epsilon'$ could come from somewhere else. Nevertheless, $\eta_{U A};U\epsilon'_A$ is still a natural automorphism of $U A$, which must be $U$ applied to a natural isomorphism of $A$.

In other words, a non-adjoint equivalence is given by arbitrary natural isomorphisms applied to an adjoint equivalence.

This is a situation that can easily be realised with group isomorphisms, yielding the counterexample that was requested.

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    $\begingroup$ This is one of those "it is better to teach a man how to catch fish" answers. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 22:05
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    $\begingroup$ @AndrejBauer: you're right, and the same applies to the question about diagrams that I wasted my time answering the other day. However, I was nerdsniped and when I'd written the proof on paper I thought I might as well post it. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 22:09
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    $\begingroup$ This is interesting, thank you; the question was intended as a ‘big list’ of examples (although per the discussion in comments ‘small list’ might be a better tag). Would you mind constructing one explicit example with group isomorphisms? $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 22:10
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    $\begingroup$ How do you mean? Does your answer somehow preclude the possibility of ‘finding’ two antiparallel functors that form an equivalence which is not adjoint? (say Stone duality, which is adjoint but just as an example) $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 22:15
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    $\begingroup$ This answer is a nice writeup of nice material, but I don’t think it answers the question. This shows how to construct examples artificially, and better, classifies them — but the question wants examples that are “canonical” (which I understand as meaning what I’d call something like “arising in nature”), which is a different and interesting question! $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2022 at 22:46

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