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Mar 31, 2012 at 21:45 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 1
Mar 31, 2012 at 19:39 answer added Kevin Smith timeline score: 0
Mar 31, 2012 at 19:19 history edited arc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 31, 2012 at 18:29 history edited arc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 31, 2012 at 18:21 comment added arc Sorry, I did mistake. I just have edited.
Mar 31, 2012 at 18:19 history edited arc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 31, 2012 at 17:12 comment added Gerald Edgar You say $\int_0^x f_a(x-y)f_b(y)dy=f_{a+b}(x)$. My calculations disagree. But the convolution $f_a * f_b$ is, indeed, unbounded at $a+b$.
Mar 31, 2012 at 13:25 history edited arc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 31, 2012 at 13:18 history asked arc CC BY-SA 3.0