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A popular pair of exercises in first courses on functional analysis prove the following theorem:

The unit ball of a Banach space $X$ is compact if and only if $X$ is finite-dimensional.

My question is, is the "only if" part of this (i.e., that the unit ball of an infinite-dimensional Banach space is noncompact) necessarily true without some form of the axiom of choice? The usual proof uses the Hahn--Banach theorem, which may reasonably be regarded as a weak form of the axiom of choice (see this answerthis answer, and other answers to the same question, for some interesting points related to this).

A popular pair of exercises in first courses on functional analysis prove the following theorem:

The unit ball of a Banach space $X$ is compact if and only if $X$ is finite-dimensional.

My question is, is the "only if" part of this (i.e., that the unit ball of an infinite-dimensional Banach space is noncompact) necessarily true without some form of the axiom of choice? The usual proof uses the Hahn--Banach theorem, which may reasonably be regarded as a weak form of the axiom of choice (see this answer, and other answers to the same question, for some interesting points related to this).

A popular pair of exercises in first courses on functional analysis prove the following theorem:

The unit ball of a Banach space $X$ is compact if and only if $X$ is finite-dimensional.

My question is, is the "only if" part of this (i.e., that the unit ball of an infinite-dimensional Banach space is noncompact) necessarily true without some form of the axiom of choice? The usual proof uses the Hahn--Banach theorem, which may reasonably be regarded as a weak form of the axiom of choice (see this answer, and other answers to the same question, for some interesting points related to this).

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Mark Meckes
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Is there an infinite-dimensional Banach space with a compact unit ball?

A popular pair of exercises in first courses on functional analysis prove the following theorem:

The unit ball of a Banach space $X$ is compact if and only if $X$ is finite-dimensional.

My question is, is the "only if" part of this (i.e., that the unit ball of an infinite-dimensional Banach space is noncompact) necessarily true without some form of the axiom of choice? The usual proof uses the Hahn--Banach theorem, which may reasonably be regarded as a weak form of the axiom of choice (see this answer, and other answers to the same question, for some interesting points related to this).