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Praphulla Koushik
Praphulla Koushik
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Why does thedoes the divisor $Z$ homologoushomologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that everyevery irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?

In Voisin's book "Hodge theory and complex algebriacalgebraic geometry I",

the proof of proposition 12.7 (page 296) says that if $X$ is projective, then every divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ can be written as a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$.

Why is it true?

Why does the divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that every irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?

In Voisin's book "Hodge theory and complex algebriac geometry I",

the proof of proposition 12.7 (page 296) says that if $X$ is projective, then every divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ can be written as a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$.

Why is it true?

Why does the divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that every irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?

In Voisin's book "Hodge theory and complex algebraic geometry I",

the proof of proposition 12.7 (page 296) says that if $X$ is projective, then every divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ can be written as a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$.

Why is it true?

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Jun Lu
Jun Lu
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Why does the divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that every irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?

In Voisin's book "Hodge theory and complex algebriac geometry I",

the proof of proposition 12.7 (page 296) says that if $X$ is projective, then every divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ can be written as a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$.

Why is it true?