Return to Revisions

2 of 2

edited body; edited title

edited Apr 18, 2020 at 3:01

Why does the divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that every irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?

In Voisin's book "Hodge theory and complex algebraic geometry I",

the proof of proposition 12.7 (page 296) says that if $X$ is projective, then every divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ can be written as a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$.

Why is it true?

ag.algebraic-geometry hodge-theory

asked Jul 14, 2011 at 4:46

Jun Lu