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May 23 at 23:35 comment added painday And in some cases, e.g. the (piece-wise)asymmetric linear damping force is given by $\mathbf F=-\begin{bmatrix}X_1\\\Theta(X_1)X_2\end{bmatrix},$ the drift $\mathbf F$ is indeed discontinuous at $\mathbf X=0.$ And of course If we allow non-linear drift then the drift can be chosen to be continuous and even $C^\infty$.
May 23 at 23:29 comment added painday That's true, but for physical picture of the Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process, if one let $\mathbf X$ denote the velocity(or momentum) of a Brownian particle diffusion in a medium, then the most physically relevant drift describing the damping force experienced by the particle is the linear drift $-\alpha \mathbf X,$ hence in this case the asymmetry of the drift typically implies that the coefficient $\alpha$ is only piece-wise constant, and hence $\alpha(\mathbf X)$ is discontinuous at $\mathbf X=0.$ Of course in this very situation $\alpha\cdot\mathbf X$ is still continuous at $0$.
May 23 at 18:25 comment added Kostya_I @painday, I don't think this has anything to do with discontinuity though - a process with a drift non-symmetric about the origin has no particular reason to have zero equilibrium expectation.
May 23 at 15:20 comment added painday Nice! The fact that the expectation $\mathbb E^{\mathbf X}\{\mathbf X_t\}$ can be nonzero would have many surprising physical consequences(e.g. noise-induced transitions)! The Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process with discontinuous drift is so interesting :) Thanks again ~
May 23 at 13:29 comment added Kostya_I @painday, I don't think there's any reason to expect it to be zero. Intuitively, the process will spend less time in a quadrant where drift towards the origin is stronger.
May 23 at 12:12 vote accept painday
May 23 at 12:11 comment added painday Excellent answer! Now I see why $\mathbb E^{\mathbf X}\{\mathbf X_t\}$ is a constant. BTW I wonder whether this constant can be nonzero? Thanks :)
May 23 at 10:38 history answered Kostya_I CC BY-SA 4.0