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abacaba
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One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: It looks like the problem as stated admits an easy counterexample. I have posted a more interesting version here.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: It looks like the problem as stated admits an easy counterexample. I have posted a more interesting version here.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

Edit: It looks like the problem as stated admits an easy counterexample. I have posted a more interesting version here.

deleted 345 characters in body. Clarify matters.
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abacaba
  • 384
  • 2
  • 10

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: It looks like the problem as stated admits an easy counterexample. I have posted a more interesting version here.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: It looks like the problem as stated admits an easy counterexample. I have posted a more interesting version here.

deleted 345 characters in body
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abacaba
  • 384
  • 2
  • 10

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ (with certain additional properties), such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, what properties of $\mathcal{F}$ are sufficient to guarantee that we can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: What I am looking for is a nontrivial sufficient condition that guarantees the existence of such a partition of $\mathcal{F}$(e.g. in the style of Hall's theorem), and whether any papers have studied these kinds of questions before.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ (with certain additional properties), such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, what properties of $\mathcal{F}$ are sufficient to guarantee that we can partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: What I am looking for is a nontrivial sufficient condition that guarantees the existence of such a partition of $\mathcal{F}$(e.g. in the style of Hall's theorem), and whether any papers have studied these kinds of questions before.

One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ , such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can w partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

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abacaba
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abacaba
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