One of my research problem can be reduced to a question of the following form

> Given a set family $\mathcal{F}$ of $[n]$ (with certain additional properties), such that every element of $[n]$ lies in exactly $K$ sets in $\mathcal{F}$, can we partition $\mathcal{F}$ into $K$ subfamilies $\mathcal{F}_i$ such that each subfamily is a partition of $[n]$?

I feel this kind of question is very natural, and greatly appreciate any reference on this type of question.

Edit: What I am looking for is a nontrivial sufficient condition that guarantees the existence of such a partition of $\mathcal{F}$(e.g. in the style of Hall's theorem), and whether any papers have studied these kinds of questions before.