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Jan 28, 2023 at 15:51 vote accept MathMath
Jan 26, 2023 at 18:38 comment added Dmitri Pavlov @MathMath: No, Â is isomorphic to σ(a) if and only if a generates A as a C*-algebra. Otherwise, you just have a continuous map Â→σ(a) provided by the Gelfand transformation, but it is no longer a homeomorphism.
Jan 26, 2023 at 14:47 comment added MathMath Dmitri, thank you for your answer. I was puzzled because, in the analysis of my post, I used the fact that $\hat{B} \cong \sigma(a)$. But if $A$ is abelian and $a \in A$ is normal, I believe the same analysis provide an isomorphism $\hat{A}\cong \sigma(a)$, right? And then formula (\ref{1}) follows from my analysis, which justifies your answer.
Jan 26, 2023 at 8:25 history answered Dmitri Pavlov CC BY-SA 4.0