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Nicholas Kuhn
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Let $C_p$ b the cyclic group of order $p$, with $p$ a prime.

Is is possible for $C_p$ to act (cellularly) on a rationally acyclic finite dimensional CW complex $X$ with no fixed points?

Standard Smith Theory implies that for this to be possible, $H_*(X;\mathbb Z/p)$ would have to be infinite dimensional. (So, e.g., with $p=2$, $X$ might be homotopichomotopy equivalent to an infinite wedge of $\mathbb RP^2$s.)

I am rather hoping that an example like this exists. But a proof that this can't happen would be fine too!

Let $C_p$ b the cyclic group of order $p$, with $p$ a prime.

Is is possible for $C_p$ to act (cellularly) on a rationally acyclic finite dimensional CW complex $X$ with no fixed points?

Standard Smith Theory implies that for this to be possible, $H_*(X;\mathbb Z/p)$ would have to be infinite dimensional. (So, e.g., with $p=2$, $X$ might be homotopic to an infinite wedge of $\mathbb RP^2$s.)

I am rather hoping that an example like this exists. But a proof that this can't happen would be fine too!

Let $C_p$ b the cyclic group of order $p$, with $p$ a prime.

Is is possible for $C_p$ to act (cellularly) on a rationally acyclic finite dimensional CW complex $X$ with no fixed points?

Standard Smith Theory implies that for this to be possible, $H_*(X;\mathbb Z/p)$ would have to be infinite dimensional. (So, e.g., with $p=2$, $X$ might be homotopy equivalent to an infinite wedge of $\mathbb RP^2$s.)

I am rather hoping that an example like this exists. But a proof that this can't happen would be fine too!

Source Link
Nicholas Kuhn
  • 11.1k
  • 31
  • 58

Can a cyclic group of prime order act on a rationally acyclic finite dimensional complex and have no fixed points?

Let $C_p$ b the cyclic group of order $p$, with $p$ a prime.

Is is possible for $C_p$ to act (cellularly) on a rationally acyclic finite dimensional CW complex $X$ with no fixed points?

Standard Smith Theory implies that for this to be possible, $H_*(X;\mathbb Z/p)$ would have to be infinite dimensional. (So, e.g., with $p=2$, $X$ might be homotopic to an infinite wedge of $\mathbb RP^2$s.)

I am rather hoping that an example like this exists. But a proof that this can't happen would be fine too!