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For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example,
n=2$n=2$: p=2 (6=2×3)$p=2$ $(6=2\times3)$
n=3$n=3$: p=3 (24=2³×3)$p=3$ $(24=2^3\times3)$
n=9$n=9$: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)$p=5$ $(720=2^4\times 3^2\times5)$

For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example,
n=2: p=2 (6=2×3)
n=3: p=3 (24=2³×3)
n=9: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)

For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example,
$n=2$: $p=2$ $(6=2\times3)$
$n=3$: $p=3$ $(24=2^3\times3)$
$n=9$: $p=5$ $(720=2^4\times 3^2\times5)$

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user
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For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example, 
n=2: p=2 (6=2×3) 
n=3: p=3 (24=2³×3) 
n=9: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)

For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example, n=2: p=2 (6=2×3) n=3: p=3 (24=2³×3) n=9: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)

For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example, 
n=2: p=2 (6=2×3) 
n=3: p=3 (24=2³×3) 
n=9: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)

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user
  • 31
  • 2

prove that there is a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$

For integer $n\ge2$, Is there always a prime p such that $v_p(n^3-n)=1$?

For example, n=2: p=2 (6=2×3) n=3: p=3 (24=2³×3) n=9: p=5 (720=2⁴×3²×5)