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S Jun 4, 2022 at 16:22 vote accept Ali Taghavi
Jun 4, 2022 at 16:21 vote accept Ali Taghavi
S Jun 4, 2022 at 16:22
May 16, 2022 at 18:25 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
(Very) Minor Math Jaxing and typo fixing (added question marks)
May 15, 2022 at 4:02 comment added Ryan Budney @DannyRuberman: Thanks, yes I missed that.
May 15, 2022 at 2:28 comment added Danny Ruberman @RyanBudney I think you missed the word topological in Zerox's comment. On the other hand, the original question is a bit ambiguous about the category one is working in. The first part could be in the smooth/PL/topological category, and might have different answers. The second part presumably refers to smooth manifolds (because of the Riemannian metric).
May 14, 2022 at 23:45 comment added Ryan Budney @Zerox, I doubt it, but if you can find such a claim somewhere, you will have found a contradiction. For example, the Poincare Dodecahedral Space does not bound a contractible 4-manifold, due to the Rochlin invariant.
May 14, 2022 at 14:19 history became hot network question
May 14, 2022 at 12:41 answer added Danny Ruberman timeline score: 12
May 14, 2022 at 11:33 comment added Zerox @RyanBudney I think Freedman proved that every homology 3-sphere bounds a contractible topological 4-manifold.
May 14, 2022 at 7:31 review Close votes
May 16, 2022 at 18:25
May 14, 2022 at 7:12 comment added Jonny Evans @RyanBudney Snap!
May 14, 2022 at 7:11 answer added Jonny Evans timeline score: 8
May 14, 2022 at 7:09 comment added Ryan Budney Generally no. For example, plenty of homotopy spheres do not bound contractible manifolds. Many (?most?) homology 3-spheres do not bound contractible 4-manifolds, yet all 3-manifolds are null cobordant.
May 14, 2022 at 6:22 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0
added 289 characters in body; edited tags
May 14, 2022 at 6:15 history asked Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0