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Mar 25, 2022 at 7:58 comment added R.P. I'd look up Polya's proof and see if I could tweak it to give a positive answer to Q1. In any case: $b \pmod{p} \in \left\langle a \pmod{p} \right\rangle$ does not imply $b \in \overline{\left\langle a \right\rangle}$, but maybe the implication does hold when $a^{p-1} \not\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$ (which means that some power $a^k$ will generate $1+p\mathbb{Z}_p \subset \mathbb{Z}_p^\ast$ topologically), for $p>2$ at least. It is worth checking if there is any room in Polya's argument to ensure this last condition holds for infinitely many $p$.
Mar 24, 2022 at 23:45 history edited A.S.
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S Mar 24, 2022 at 21:28 review First questions
Mar 24, 2022 at 22:06
S Mar 24, 2022 at 21:28 history asked A.S. CC BY-SA 4.0