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Jul 21, 2022 at 19:47 comment added Urs Schreiber @MarkGrant thanks for commenting. Let me highlight that the transfer is not meant to be a Quillen equivalence. For $G = 1$ it's meant to give the $\pi_1(X)$-equivariant Borel model structure. For general $G$ it must be a mix between proper $G$-equivariance and $\pi^{H}_1(X)$-Borel equivariance, as $H \subset G$ varies. (Incidentally, I can see that the transfer model structure exists under the assumption that $G/H \mapsto \pi^{H}_1(X)$ is projectively cofibrant. Unfortunately, that's too strong a condition to be of much interest.)
Jul 21, 2022 at 9:15 comment added Mark Grant It seems like it would be a good idea to pin down the details of the case $G=1$ first. Even there you dont expect to get a Quillen equivalence without some nilpotency condition on $\pi_1$.
Jul 20, 2022 at 20:17 history edited Urs Schreiber CC BY-SA 4.0
adjusted links to nLab, which changed due to server migration efforts
Dec 30, 2021 at 18:15 history edited Urs Schreiber CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 30, 2021 at 18:10 history asked Urs Schreiber CC BY-SA 4.0