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Sep 14, 2021 at 6:37 vote accept AlbertRapp
Sep 9, 2021 at 18:56 comment added Yuval Peres @DieterKadelka Consider a sequence of independent variables taking values {0,1} such that P(X_n=1)=1/n
Sep 9, 2021 at 14:02 comment added Iosif Pinelis @DieterKadelka : Convergence in probability to a constant is not equivalent to a.s. convergence.
Sep 9, 2021 at 13:39 comment added Dieter Kadelka Is this really a result in probability? Convergence in probability to a constant is equivalent to a.s. convergence. What am I missing?
Sep 9, 2021 at 13:26 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0