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Jul 29, 2021 at 19:35 history bounty ended Rdrr
Jul 29, 2021 at 19:35 vote accept Rdrr
Jul 29, 2021 at 14:46 comment added Rdrr Thank you so much Bjorn. This is a very insightful proof.
Jul 29, 2021 at 13:37 vote accept Rdrr
Jul 29, 2021 at 19:35
Jul 29, 2021 at 3:28 comment added Bjorn Poonen @Rdrr: Here is another way to say it. Let $\mathfrak{p}$ be the prime corresponding to $v$. The implication $v(\beta) \ge 2n \implies \beta \in (p)$ is equivalent to $\mathfrak{p}^{2n} \subset (p)$, which is the same as saying that $(p)$ divides $\mathfrak{p}^{2n}$. In this case, the factorization of the $\mathcal{O}$-ideal $(p)$ cannot involve any primes other than $\mathfrak{p}$.
Jul 28, 2021 at 19:57 comment added Rdrr I must be missing a basic algebraic number theory fact. How does one get a contradiction from a high power?
Jul 28, 2021 at 17:45 comment added Will Sawin @Rdrr If $v$ is not the only place above $p$, choose some element which is $0$ modulo $v$ but not zero modulo the other place above $p$, and then take a high power, for a contradiction.
Jul 28, 2021 at 14:26 comment added Rdrr This is a wonderful proof. If you wouldn't mind I'd like some clarification on why $v(\beta)\geq 2n$ implies that $v$ is the only place above $p$.
Jul 28, 2021 at 1:06 history answered Bjorn Poonen CC BY-SA 4.0