Timeline for Does a subset of positive measure in $\mathbb{R}$ locally "almost" have density $1$? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 26, 2020 at 6:28 | history | closed |
Emil Jeřábek Martin Sleziak Eric Peterson Mark Wildon Anton Petrunin |
Not suitable for this site | |
| Dec 16, 2020 at 19:53 | comment | added | Mark Wildon | I’m voting to close this question because the answer in Emil Jeřábek's comment shows that the non-obvious direction it follows at once from a standard result in measure theory. | |
| Dec 1, 2020 at 12:47 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Dec 1, 2020 at 12:47 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Dec 1, 2020 at 12:47 | |||||
| Dec 1, 2020 at 12:21 | review | Close votes | |||
| Dec 26, 2020 at 6:31 | |||||
| Dec 1, 2020 at 12:07 | comment | added | Emil Jeřábek | The question in the question is trivial. The question in the title follows from the Lebesgue density theorem. | |
| Dec 1, 2020 at 10:11 | answer | added | Ayman Moussa | timeline score: 3 | |
| Dec 1, 2020 at 10:04 | comment | added | RaphaelB4 | Don't you mean : "Clearly if $A$ is locally $\epsilon-$dense then $A$ has positive measure"? | |
| Dec 1, 2020 at 9:53 | history | asked | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |