The Manin obstruction is explainexplains why the Hasse principle dontdoesn't work infor non-quadratic forms. Let's write the notation first;
$V(\mathbb{Q})$ is variety for rational numbers.
$V(A_\mathbb{Q})$ is variety for adelic pointadèlic points (i.e. its contain, it contains real solution and p-adic solution for all p$p$).
Its clearlyIt's clear that $V(\mathbb{Q}) \subset V(A_\mathbb{Q})$.
Manin obsruction says, we can find new variety set $V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{Br}$$V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{\text{Br}}$ such that $V(\mathbb{Q}) \subset V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{Br} \subset V(A_\mathbb{Q})$$V(\mathbb{Q}) \subset V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{\text{Br}} \subset V(A_\mathbb{Q})$. If $V(A_\mathbb{Q})$ is not empty but $V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{Br}$$V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{\text{Br}}$ is empty, then $V(\mathbb{Q})$ must be empty. So we can equation hasconclude the defining equations have no rational solution.
But why its don'tdoesn't it work for quadratic forms? I estimate in thethat, for quadratic forms, $V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{Br}$$V(A_\mathbb{Q})^{\text{Br}}$ must be equal to $V(A_\mathbb{Q})$ or $V(\mathbb{Q})$. Is this approach correct?
I could not find an explanation of this in the article and books I have examined.I I think, I can use this for my thesis. therefore Therefore I have to explain to howwhy it is notdoesn't work or II must have a reference for this.
I would be very thankful if you could help.