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Jun 22, 2020 at 13:48 comment added Vincent Granville Thank you. I guess I will stop wasting my time trying to prove my problem. That was supposed to be the easiest of the two big challenges I am facing, and it turns out to be unproven yet.
Jun 22, 2020 at 9:33 comment added Wojowu Correction from my previous comment: the exponent should be, I think, $\frac{\alpha-1}{\alpha}$, not $\alpha-1$.
Jun 22, 2020 at 7:27 comment added Gerry Myerson Indeed, it's not even known whether there's always a prime between consecutive squares, so the question here seems hopeless.
Jun 21, 2020 at 23:33 comment added Wojowu Of course, the answer is "no" for $\alpha\leq 1$. For $\alpha>1$ this is conjecturally true, but not proven. This is a question about maximal prime gaps, specifically whether they are $O(p_n^{\alpha-1})$. See here for known results.
Jun 21, 2020 at 23:28 history asked Vincent Granville CC BY-SA 4.0