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May 14, 2020 at 0:03 history became hot network question
May 13, 2020 at 19:53 vote accept ABIM
May 13, 2020 at 19:23 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 4
May 13, 2020 at 19:13 answer added Michael Greinecker timeline score: 4
May 13, 2020 at 19:12 comment added Nate Eldredge @AIM_BLB: Yes. A submetrizable space, by definition, has a continuous injection into a metric space, which in turn has a continuous injection into its completion, which as abx noted has a bimeasurable bijection to $\mathbb{R}$ assuming separability in the right places.
May 13, 2020 at 18:32 comment added ABIM @NateEldredge I never heard of submetrizable, but I assume it can be worked out directly from the theorem abx provided?
May 13, 2020 at 18:32 comment added ABIM @abx I did not know this result, thanks.
May 13, 2020 at 18:20 comment added abx @Nate Eldredge: Yes, right.
May 13, 2020 at 17:40 comment added Nate Eldredge @abx: Since only injectivity is requested here, any separable metrizable space will do. In particular, a non-measurable subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ with its Borel $\sigma$-algebra will do. Actually, submetrizable is enough.
May 13, 2020 at 17:03 comment added YCor In general, we can stick to $n=1$.
May 13, 2020 at 16:59 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed capitals from title; edited tags
May 13, 2020 at 16:33 comment added abx Such a function (in fact, bijective) exists as soon as $\Omega $ is an uncountable polish space — this is the Borel isomorphism theorem.
May 13, 2020 at 16:03 history asked ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0