2
$\begingroup$

Let $(\Omega,\mathfrak{F})$ be a measurable space. When does there exist an injective measurable function $f:(\Omega,\mathfrak{F})\to (\mathbb{R}^n,B(\mathbb{R}^n))$ to some Euclidean space, here $B(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is the Borel $\sigma$-algebra.

Thoughts. Clearly, if $\Omega$ is a Riemannian manifold and $\mathfrak{F}$ is its Borel $\sigma$-algebra then this works but I'm thinking of more general, non-topological criteria. (If they exist)

$\endgroup$
7
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Such a function (in fact, bijective) exists as soon as $\Omega $ is an uncountable polish space — this is the Borel isomorphism theorem. $\endgroup$
    – abx
    Commented May 13, 2020 at 16:33
  • $\begingroup$ In general, we can stick to $n=1$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented May 13, 2020 at 17:03
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @abx: Since only injectivity is requested here, any separable metrizable space will do. In particular, a non-measurable subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ with its Borel $\sigma$-algebra will do. Actually, submetrizable is enough. $\endgroup$ Commented May 13, 2020 at 17:40
  • $\begingroup$ @Nate Eldredge: Yes, right. $\endgroup$
    – abx
    Commented May 13, 2020 at 18:20
  • $\begingroup$ @abx I did not know this result, thanks. $\endgroup$
    – ABIM
    Commented May 13, 2020 at 18:32

2 Answers 2

4
$\begingroup$

(Basically the same as Michael's answer)

Theorem 6.5.7 of Measure Theory by V. Bogachev:

Theorem. The following are equivalent:

  1. $\mathfrak{F}$ is countably separated (Bogachev Definition 6.5.1 (ii)): there exists an at most countable collection of sets $F_n \in \mathfrak{F}$ such that for every two distinct points $x,y \in \Omega$, there is some $F_n$ with $x \in F_n$, $y \notin F_n$;

  2. there is an injective measurable function $f : \Omega \to [0,1]$ (or equivalently, to $\mathbb{R}^n$, since they are Borel isomorphic to $[0,1]$);

  3. The diagonal $\Delta = \{(x,x) : x \in \Omega\}$ is measurable with respect to the product $\sigma$-algebra $\mathfrak{F} \otimes\mathfrak{F}$;

  4. There exists a separable (i.e. countably generated) sub-$\sigma$-algebra $\mathfrak{F}_0 \subset \mathfrak{F}$ which contains all the singletons.

$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

This is the case if and only if there exists a countable subfamily of $\mathfrak{F}$ that separates points. Necessity is straightforward; if such a function exists then the preimages of rectangles with rational coordinates at the endpoints will serve as the countable separating family.

For sufficiency, let $\mathcal{C}=\{C_1, C_2,\ldots\}$ be a countable separating family of measurable sets. Then the Marczewski function $f:\Omega\to [0,1]$ given by $f(\omega)=\sum_n 2/3^n1_{C_n}(\omega)$ will be measurable and injective.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .