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In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for anya prime number $p$ he askedasks whether there exist nontrivialexists a $p$-divisible groupsgroup $G$ over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. such that $p$-divisible groups which are$G$ is not a product of powersdirect sum of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

In works of V. A. Abrashkin, he claims that there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primesi. What about the general case? Do we knowe a lotdirect sum of primes $p$a constant group and a diagonalizable group. He calls such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?groups nontrival.

Motivation: On the other hand,This question has some good applications. For instance we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proofkey idea involves analyzing $p$-divisible groups for small $p$ using discriminant bound. In particular Tate's question is true for $p=3,5,7,11,13,17$ (see theorem $4$ in Fontaine's paper Il n'y a pas de variété abélienne sur $\mathbb Z$ for a proof).

Edit: One answer below suspectsFor the works ofnegative side, the case $p=2$ is bad but also good up to isogeny. In an old paper $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ by V. A. Abrashkin might contain errors, maybe a further reference is good. Anywayhe claims that there also exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for some small irregular primes, the key questionbut this seems to be wrong (see one answer below).

Odlyzko's discriminant bound is what we knownot good for general primelarge $p$. But time has passed for more than $30$ years, iswhat about the general case now? Is there any progress towards Tate's question? With the technique of mordern $p$-adic Hodge theory, maybe such question could be solved. Indeed, some generalizations of Fontaine's result for abelian schemes rely on the Fontaine-Laffaille theory.

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

In works of V. A. Abrashkin, he claims that there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

Edit: One answer below suspects the works of V. A. Abrashkin might contain errors, maybe a further reference is good. Anyway, the key question is what we know for general prime $p$, is there any progress towards Tate's question? With the technique of mordern $p$-adic Hodge theory, maybe such question could be solved.

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for a prime number $p$ he asks whether there exists a $p$-divisible group $G$ over $\mathbb Z$ such that $G$ is not a direct sum of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $, i.e a direct sum of a constant group and a diagonalizable group. He calls such $p$-divisible groups nontrival.

This question has some good applications. For instance we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose key idea involves analyzing $p$-divisible groups for small $p$ using discriminant bound. In particular Tate's question is true for $p=3,5,7,11,13,17$ (see theorem $4$ in Fontaine's paper Il n'y a pas de variété abélienne sur $\mathbb Z$ for a proof).

For the negative side, the case $p=2$ is bad but also good up to isogeny. In an old paper $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ by V. A. Abrashkin, he claims that there also exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for some small irregular primes, but this seems to be wrong (see one answer below).

Odlyzko's discriminant bound is not good for large $p$. But time has passed for more than $30$ years, what about the general case now? Is there any progress towards Tate's question? With the technique of mordern $p$-adic Hodge theory, maybe such question could be solved. Indeed, some generalizations of Fontaine's result for abelian schemes rely on the Fontaine-Laffaille theory.

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Zhiyu
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In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

FromIn works of V. A. Abrashkin, we knowhe claims that there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

Edit: One answer below suspects the works of V. A. Abrashkin might contain errors, maybe a further reference is good. Anyway, the key question is what we know for general prime $p$, is there any progress towards Tate's question? With the technique of mordern $p$-adic Hodge theory, maybe such question could be solved.

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

From works of V. A. Abrashkin, we know there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

In works of V. A. Abrashkin, he claims that there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

Edit: One answer below suspects the works of V. A. Abrashkin might contain errors, maybe a further reference is good. Anyway, the key question is what we know for general prime $p$, is there any progress towards Tate's question? With the technique of mordern $p$-adic Hodge theory, maybe such question could be solved.

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Zhiyu
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In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

From works of V. A. Abrashkin, we know there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

From works of V. A. Abrashkin, we know there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

In Tate's famous paper about $p$-divisible groups, for any prime $p$ he asked whether there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups over $\mathbb Z$, i.e. $p$-divisible groups which are not a product of powers of $\mu_{p^\infty}$ and $\mathbb Q_p/ \mathbb Z_p $.

From works of V. A. Abrashkin, we know there exist nontrivial $p$-divisible groups for $p=2$ and some irregular primes. What about the general case? Do we know a lot of primes $p$ such that every $p$-divisible group over $\mathbb Z$ is trivial?

Motivation: On the other hand, we know there is no abelian scheme over $\mathbb Z$, whose proof involves $p$-divisible groups.

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