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Jun 4, 2017 at 0:06 comment added D1811994 First of all, thank you very much for your time. Could you elaborate a bit more on flipping over the function $h$, please? It seems to me that if you flip the function, then you are not proving the result for your arbitrary chosen function $h$. Thanks in advance! And, I have thought about this and, It seems we are arriving to the results exchanged, I mean, with the expression for lower integral we arrive to the result for the upper one and the other way around. Am I right?
May 30, 2017 at 22:34 vote accept D1811994
May 30, 2017 at 21:17 history answered Chris Schommer-Pries CC BY-SA 3.0