Timeline for When are finite maps quotients by finite groups?

11 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Dec 5, 2016 at 21:09	vote	accept	Saal Hardali
Dec 5, 2016 at 21:03	answer	added	Will Sawin		timeline score: 9
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:55	history	edited	Saal Hardali	CC BY-SA 3.0	deleted 43 characters in body
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:49	history	edited	Saal Hardali	CC BY-SA 3.0	deleted 43 characters in body
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:48	comment	added	Will Sawin		For either of these to be true, there must be an action of $G$ on $k(X)$. But $G$ acts on $\tilde{k(X)}$, which is usually not equal to $k(X)$.
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:48	history	edited	Saal Hardali	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 18 characters in body
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:46	comment	added	Will Sawin		Mohan means that your statements "Generically such an action always exists" and "If $X$ and $Y$ are curves then I think this is always the case" both seem wrong unless you are using a different definition of one of the terms than usual.
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:40	comment	added	Saal Hardali		@Mohan What do you mean?
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:38	comment	added	Mohan		How did you come to conclude 1? This situation can not be better than Galois theory for filed extensions.
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:35	history	edited	Saal Hardali	CC BY-SA 3.0	deleted 4 characters in body
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:20	history	asked	Saal Hardali	CC BY-SA 3.0