Timeline for integral with simple approximation. But why?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Sep 3, 2016 at 0:55 | review | First posts | |||
Sep 3, 2016 at 1:36 | |||||
Aug 25, 2016 at 20:50 | history | reopened |
Michael Albanese Wolfgang paul garrett Stefan Kohl♦ Yemon Choi |
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Aug 25, 2016 at 20:24 | history | edited | Karen Schmidt | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
title no longer correct after last edit
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Aug 25, 2016 at 20:14 | review | Reopen votes | |||
Aug 25, 2016 at 20:54 | |||||
Aug 25, 2016 at 19:57 | history | edited | Karen Schmidt | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
rewrote so that there is a clear question
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Aug 24, 2016 at 20:58 | history | closed |
Gerald Edgar Franz Lemmermeyer Carlo Beenakker Wolfgang András Bátkai |
Needs details or clarity | |
Aug 24, 2016 at 18:23 | review | Close votes | |||
Aug 24, 2016 at 20:58 | |||||
Aug 24, 2016 at 18:01 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | Taking $x_0=1$ and $\lambda=1$ and $5$ I also get disagreement, and not just by a constant factor. Probably Karen copied something wrong. Should we put the question on hold until Karen can correct it? | |
Aug 24, 2016 at 17:01 | comment | added | Willie Wong | Are you missing a factor? Setting $x_0 = 0$ the integral simplifies to $\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{(1 + x^2)^{3/2}} = 2 \neq \mathrm{sinc}(0)$. | |
Aug 24, 2016 at 16:00 | history | asked | Karen Schmidt | CC BY-SA 3.0 |