Skip to main content
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Source Link

In this questionthis question it was claimed that if a module $M$ over a noetherian domain $R$ satisfies $\rm{Ext}^i(M,R)=0$ for $i=1,2$, then $M$ is reflexive. Is this true? Does someone know a reference or a proof for this? If it is not correct, is there another criterion for being reflexive via some $\rm Ext$-goups vanishing?

In this question it was claimed that if a module $M$ over a noetherian domain $R$ satisfies $\rm{Ext}^i(M,R)=0$ for $i=1,2$, then $M$ is reflexive. Is this true? Does someone know a reference or a proof for this? If it is not correct, is there another criterion for being reflexive via some $\rm Ext$-goups vanishing?

In this question it was claimed that if a module $M$ over a noetherian domain $R$ satisfies $\rm{Ext}^i(M,R)=0$ for $i=1,2$, then $M$ is reflexive. Is this true? Does someone know a reference or a proof for this? If it is not correct, is there another criterion for being reflexive via some $\rm Ext$-goups vanishing?

Source Link
Hans
  • 3k
  • 13
  • 17

Criterion for being reflexive via Ext

In this question it was claimed that if a module $M$ over a noetherian domain $R$ satisfies $\rm{Ext}^i(M,R)=0$ for $i=1,2$, then $M$ is reflexive. Is this true? Does someone know a reference or a proof for this? If it is not correct, is there another criterion for being reflexive via some $\rm Ext$-goups vanishing?