Let $G$ be a finite group and let $g\in G$ such that$g \in G$ be an element of order $o(g)=pq$$pq$, where $p<q$$p < q$ are prime prime numbers. (Also we know thatDenote by $g^G$ isthe conjugacy class of $g$ in $G$.) Under which conditions we can say that $|(g^p)^G|=|(g^q)^G|=|(g^{q−p})^G|$ does the following hold?: $$ |(g^p)^G| = |(g^q)^G| = |(g^{q−p})^G| $$ -- Is it possible that it happenthis happens?
Post Closed as "Not suitable for this site" by Ricardo Andrade, Derek Holt, András Bátkai, Chris Godsil, Alex Degtyarev
Stefan Kohl
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