igvenGiven the idvergentdivergent integral
$$ \int _{0}^{\infty}dx \int_{0}^{\infty}dy \frac{x^{2}y+1}{1+x+y} $$
how could ican I apply Hadamard's fintefinite part to give a finite meaning to it ?
itIt is jusjust made by applying htethe itetrated finite part first to 'dx''$dx$' and then 'dy''$dy$'?