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Community Bot
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Due to the examples given in the answer to this questionthis question, I know that the conclusion is of course incorrect. But by reading Kaplansky's proof of theorem 1 in this paper and replacing every occurrence of the word "countably" by "finitely" there (both in the statement and the proof), I'm not able to observe where the proof fails. Maybe it's some silly mistake that I overlooked, but it also maybe some mistake one easily commits without even realizing it and leads to a wrong conclusion. Anyway, thanks in advance for this seemingly naive question.

Due to the examples given in the answer to this question, I know that the conclusion is of course incorrect. But by reading Kaplansky's proof of theorem 1 in this paper and replacing every occurrence of the word "countably" by "finitely" there (both in the statement and the proof), I'm not able to observe where the proof fails. Maybe it's some silly mistake that I overlooked, but it also maybe some mistake one easily commits without even realizing it and leads to a wrong conclusion. Anyway, thanks in advance for this seemingly naive question.

Due to the examples given in the answer to this question, I know that the conclusion is of course incorrect. But by reading Kaplansky's proof of theorem 1 in this paper and replacing every occurrence of the word "countably" by "finitely" there (both in the statement and the proof), I'm not able to observe where the proof fails. Maybe it's some silly mistake that I overlooked, but it also maybe some mistake one easily commits without even realizing it and leads to a wrong conclusion. Anyway, thanks in advance for this seemingly naive question.

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David White
David White
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Why can't one modify Kaplansky's proof to conclude that allevery projective module is a direct sum of its finitely generated projetive submodules?

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Hua Wang
Hua Wang
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Why can't one modify Kaplansky's proof to conclude that all projective module is a direct sum of its finitely generated projetive submodules?

Due to the examples given in the answer to this question, I know that the conclusion is of course incorrect. But by reading Kaplansky's proof of theorem 1 in this paper and replacing every occurrence of the word "countably" by "finitely" there (both in the statement and the proof), I'm not able to observe where the proof fails. Maybe it's some silly mistake that I overlooked, but it also maybe some mistake one easily commits without even realizing it and leads to a wrong conclusion. Anyway, thanks in advance for this seemingly naive question.