It seems to me this is a completely general fact. If $\tilde{\pi}^{-1}(K)$$\tilde\pi^{-1}(K)$ is contained in a compact open subgroup $K'$, then $\pi (K')$$\tilde\pi(K')$ is a compact open subgroup containing $K$, thus equal to $K$; this implies $K'=\tilde{\pi}^{-1}(K)$$K'=\tilde\pi^{-1}(K)$.
LSpice
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