Timeline for Metrics for lines in $\mathbb{R}^3$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
17 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://math.stackexchange.com/ with https://math.stackexchange.com/
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| Sep 1, 2014 at 17:36 | history | edited | Ricardo Andrade | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
replaced deprecated tag 'geometry'
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| Sep 1, 2014 at 12:27 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Typo.
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| Sep 1, 2014 at 12:15 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Misspelled Will Sawin's name.
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| Aug 8, 2013 at 21:00 | comment | added | Paul Reynolds | Not quite what you asked but, interestingly, the space of oriented lines in $\mathbb{R}^3$ can be considered as a split-signature Kähler manifold. | |
| Jul 25, 2013 at 1:43 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Typo: then ==> than.
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| Jul 24, 2013 at 23:37 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Corrected as per Yoav.
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| Jul 24, 2013 at 23:20 | comment | added | Yoav Kallus | You might want to edit your summary so that "spun about their projected intersection point", is understood to mean spun about their intersection point in the plane that contains them. Since otherwise this is false (a rotation of L2 in a different plane can result in θ increasing while d decreases). | |
| Jul 24, 2013 at 22:03 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
(Attempted) Summary of the confusing variety of answers provided.
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| Jul 24, 2013 at 2:48 | answer | added | Will Sawin | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jul 24, 2013 at 1:40 | answer | added | Yoav Kallus | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jul 21, 2013 at 17:12 | vote | accept | Joseph O'Rourke | ||
| Jul 20, 2013 at 16:13 | history | edited | Joseph O'Rourke |
edited tags
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| Jul 20, 2013 at 15:53 | answer | added | Vidit Nanda | timeline score: 26 | |
| Jul 20, 2013 at 15:30 | comment | added | Pierre Simon | Your example shows more generally that there is no such metric which is invariant under the group of Euclidean motions, since that would always give you $d(x,y)=d(y,z)$ and $d(x,z)\leq 2d(x,y)$ regardless of the value of $a$. | |
| Jul 20, 2013 at 15:21 | answer | added | Robert Bryant | timeline score: 13 | |
| Jul 20, 2013 at 15:00 | history | asked | Joseph O'Rourke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |