Hi to all II have the following question: Let f$f$ be an analytic function satisfying the functional equation: f(z)=u(z)*f(a-z)$f(z)=u(z)f(a-z)$ where "a"$a$ is a real constant. Let g$g$ be another function satisfying the same functional equation. In this case I asking if f=g$f=g$. Thank you in advance.