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Why is $F_\varepsilon$ not equicoercive? I might have misunderstood the definition of equicoercive. Isn't equicoercive equivalent to showing that any uniformly bounded sublevel sets has a convergent subsequence?
@MichaelRenardy My intention is to learn how to dealt with the integral side constraint that is only defined on parts of the boundary. I agree that (1) and (4) are both redundant questions. The Dirichlet energy functional is simply a toy problem, my actual problem consists of (quadratic) functional of two variables. As I mentioned, the only way I know how to deal with integral constraint is by showing that they are weakly continuous, but I'd be happy to hear your thoughts.