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Alex Gavrilov's user avatar
Alex Gavrilov's user avatar
Alex Gavrilov's user avatar
Alex Gavrilov
  • Member for 14 years, 2 months
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  • Russia
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Is it possible to sum the divergent series with prime coefficients?
user76284 @: The analytic continuation of a given function is (more or less) unique, but in this context we not not HAVE a function. We have to chose it and the number of choices is pretty much unlimited. For a reference to the above, see e.g. Hardy, Divergent series, Theorem 9 (p. 52 in the edition I am looking at).
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Is this invariant of an exotic 4-sphere trivial?
@skupers. Can you elaborate on the conclusion? We need (1) An analogous invariant in $\pi_3(STOP(4))$ (even though it would be trivial in the end) and (2) a commutative diagram. I am not sure about either.
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Incorrect information in an old article about the Kervaire invariant
Thank you. So this is where the mistake was. By the way, in the Remark I mentioned Mahowald have really said "it can be shown that $\theta_4^2=0$". And yes it can, except this was actually done 40+ years later! (Theorem 1.2 in this paper of Xu.) Amazing. I am still curious though why Shtan'ko counted the problem as solved in 1970s. Was there a time when experts were optimistic about it?
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What is the generator of $\pi_9(S^2)$?
I think this description is good enough for me. (And now I do not mind moderators closing my question as a duplicate.)
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What is the generator of $\pi_9(S^2)$?
Thank you. What I want is to have a picture of the geometry. (Even if only a bit. Then, at least, I would not have to completely trust a topologist that all of this works.) To do this your way I would need to make sense of (1) the map $S^8\to S^5$ in $\pi_8 S^5$ and of (2) the geometry of $\pi_8 S^5\to \pi_9S^3$. Both things look rather obscure to me (even if I more or less understand the argument on the formal level).
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