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This doesn't seem to work for $n = 2$. Do you mean to have $\displaystyle \frac1n\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom{n}{k}\log^{n-k}(n)\int_0^\infty e^{-x}\log^k(x)\,dx$?
Thanks. Yes I was surprised by that histogram too. Originally I thought there might have been a bug in my code. I reran my code without the intersection stopping condition and the histogram came out uniform. An example of that is in the linked notebook.
@MarkS I did indeed try and nothing fruitful came out for the entire distribution. But the tail does seem to have some regularity. I have code that can run $10^11$ simulations in the order of hours. And this weekend I’ll have access to a machine with many cores and I’m hoping to run $10^12$. After this I plan to post an answer detailing the data.