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juan
  • Member for 14 years, 5 months
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Can a vector space over an infinite field be a finite union of proper subspaces?
Hence any Banach space of dimension infinite is the union of a countable set of hyperplanes. Baire theorem is no problem since an hyperplane may be of second Baire category. In fact there was a conjecture by Klee and Wilansky that first category hyperplane are the same as closed hyperplanes. I proved this conjecture is not true Dense Hyperplanes of First Category. Mathematische Annalen. Vol. 249. 1980. Pag. 111-114.
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Can a vector space over an infinite field be a finite union of proper subspaces?
What I said is true for any infinite dimension. I speak about a Hamel basis. Each vector has only a finite number of non null coordinates.
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Can a vector space over an infinite field be a finite union of proper subspaces?
A vector space $V$ of dimension infinite is always union of a countable set of proper subspaces. Take a Hamel basis $e_\alpha$ . Each vector can be written $v = \sum_\alpha x_\alpha e_\alpha$. Let $V_\alpha$ the subspace of those vectors for which $x_\alpha = 0$ It is clear that $V$ is the union of any sequence $V_{\alpha_n}$ for $n\in \N$ with $\alpha_n$ differents.
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Almost isometric subspaces of $\ell_p$
I will not call this almost isometric because ε is not small.
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Is Jordan outer measure finitely additive on positively separated sets in $\mathbb{R^n}$?
Cutting a set = the intersection with this set is non empty. You asked for "positively separated sets". I understodd that the infimum of the distances between points one of each set is greater than a certain $d > 0$. I called this separated sets in my answer. So my answer is the same as Edgar.
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Fubini's theorem without completeness or $\sigma$-finiteness conditions
added a proposal of new definition; added 1 characters in body
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Are all zeros of $\Gamma(s) \pm \Gamma(1-s)$ on a line with real part = $\frac12$ ?
yes I know it. But here the lines are very regular in xi not.
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Are all zeros of $\Gamma(s) \pm \Gamma(1-s)$ on a line with real part = $\frac12$ ?
I do not understand you. It would be nice to have it in the answer. But here we have only the link, but not the figure. (I am not English speaker).
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Are all zeros of $\Gamma(s) \pm \Gamma(1-s)$ on a line with real part = $\frac12$ ?
Here we have the x-ray of Γ(x)−Γ(1−x) on the rectangle (−12,12)×(−12,12) img src = dl.dropbox.com/u/23924184/gammajoro1.png
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Are all zeros of $\Gamma(s) \pm \Gamma(1-s)$ on a line with real part = $\frac12$ ?
Of course the real zeros are symmetric with respect to 0.5 so that there are zeros near $-3$, $-4$, $\dots$
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Are all zeros of $\Gamma(s) \pm \Gamma(1-s)$ on a line with real part = $\frac12$ ?
Apparently I can not post here a plot. The x-ray gives little doubt that the zeros of $\Gamma(s)-\Gamma(1-s)$ are the ones with real part $1/2$ that appeared computed in this question. The complex at $-1.69-0.30 i$ its complex conjugate the symmetrical of this with respect the critical line $2.69+0.30i$ and its complex conjugate. And then the real zeros one at $0.5$. The others real zeros can be obtained best from a real plot of the function. In the x-ray this zeros, that are very near the poles at $4$, $5$, $\dots$, can not be seen since they are contained in very short lines.