User Stefan Mesken

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Mar 1, 2016 at 14:37

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Does totally proper forcing imply countable distributivity?

Right, I completely ignored the fact that we were talking about totally proper forcings. Thank you.

Sep 7, 2015 at 12:36

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Does totally proper forcing imply countable distributivity?

I have OP's definition in mind. A forcing is countable distributive iff the intersection of countably many open dense sets remains to be dense. This follows from not adding countable subsets if the forcing is separative.

Sep 7, 2015 at 11:19

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Does totally proper forcing imply countable distributivity?

Sure, but from this we can conclude its countable distributivity only if the forcing is separative, right?

Sep 7, 2015 at 11:03

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Does totally proper forcing imply countable distributivity?

Are you assuming that $Q$ is separative?

Sep 6, 2015 at 22:48

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