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user469053
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Example of norm of vectors in the Tsirelson space
For the asymptotic $\ell_1$ space, I believe we get $\|\sum_{i=1}^{2n} e_i\|=\max \{1,n/2\}$ and $\|\sum_{i=1}^{2n+1} e_i\|=\max\{1,(n+1)/2\}$, which is in line with the answer by @SArgyros. For the asymptotic $c_0$ space, I think the answer is much more complicated. It probably involves the Ackermann functions.
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Find an optimizer for $g(x,y)$ if it exists
It says that $f(x,y) \geq f(z,w)$ if and only if $x\geq z$ and $y\geq w$. Choose $x>z$ and $y<w$. Then the condition $(x\geq z)\wedge (y\geq w)$ is not satisfied, and therefore the condition $f(x,y)\geqslant f(z,w)$ is not satisfied. Similarly, since $z<x$, the condition $(z\geq x)\wedge (w\geq y)$ is not satisfied, so the condition $f(z,w) \geq f(x,y)$ is not satisfied. Therefore $f(x,y)<f(z,w)$ and $f(z,w)<f(x,y)$.
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Find an optimizer for $g(x,y)$ if it exists
Is this in reference to my original comment, which is now deleted?
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Find an optimizer for $g(x,y)$ if it exists
How is condition 4 possible?
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If $H \in L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ such that $\int \langle H, f \rangle \mathrm d \mu = 0$ for all $f \in L_{p}(\mu, X)$, then $H=0$ $\mu$-a.e
Are you asking this: If $\varphi:L_p(\mu,X)^*\to L_q(\mu,X^*)$ is an isometric isomorphism, $N\in \Sigma$, and $K\in L_p(\mu,X)^*$ is such that $K(f1_N)=0$ for all $f\in L_p(\mu,X)$, then $\varphi(K)=0$ a.e. on $N$? The answer to this would be no. Consider $\Omega=[0,1]$, $\mu$ Lebesgue measure. Let $\psi:L_p^*\to L_q$ be the usual isometric isomorphism and let $\varphi K (x) = \psi K(1-x)$. Then any function which vanishes on $[0,1/2]$ would satisfy $K(f 1_{[1/2,1]})=0$ for all $f\in L_p$.
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Example of norm of vectors in the Tsirelson space
By "the Tsirelson space", do you mean Tsirelson's original space (which is asymptotic $c_0$) or the Figiel-Johnson Tsirelson space (which is asymptotic $\ell_1$)?
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If $H \in L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ such that $\int \langle H, f \rangle \mathrm d \mu = 0$ for all $f \in L_{p}(\mu, X)$, then $H=0$ $\mu$-a.e
My answer gets you to the conclusion that you want, but it doesn't really explain why. To see why the result is true, you will want to look at the proof that the inclusion of $L_q(\mu,X^*)$ into $L_p(\mu,X)^*$ is an isometric embedding. The fact that it's norm at most $1$ follows from H\:{o}lder. To see why it's isometric, I'd recommend looking first at simple functions.
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