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Nice question... We can ask question about the function $g(x)=E(Y\mid X=x)$, defined by $g(X)=E(Y\mid X)$, as long as they don't distinguish $g$ from another function $h$ where $g(x)=h(x)$ for almost all $x$. But in this case if $g(C)=E(Y\mid X=C)$ then for each particular $x$, $\{C\in x\}$ is a particular measure zero sets of $C$'s and therefore forbidden...