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Why do we need straightening?
The problem is that mapping spaces are not automatically functorial (essentially because you don't have a strict composition in quasicategories), so the usual formula for the represented presheaf doesn't define a functor. The construction of a "mapping space" functor and everything obtained from it, like the Yoneda embedding, is one of the main applications of straightening.
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When is a chain complex induced up to quasiisomorphism
That's exactly what the machinery of faithfully flat descent does for you. It tells you precisely what additional structure you need to endow your $C_*$ with in order to find a $D_*$ as desired. I don't think you can turn this into a manageable list of obstructions in general, but if your complex is of finite length, this in principle turns into a finite amount of coherences.
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Can we define fundamental groups functorially for non-pointed path connected topological spaces?
They always differ for nonabelian $\pi_1$, but for an easy example just think of a perfect group.
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Can we define fundamental groups functorially for non-pointed path connected topological spaces?
Unpointed homotopy classes $[S^1,Y]$ are given by the set of conjugacy classes in $\pi_1(Y)$, not $H_1(Y)$. (The former is the orbits of the conjugacy action of $\pi_1$ on itself in the category of sets, the latter in the category of groups (i.e. the abelianisation.)
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Open problems from antiquity solved with analytic geometry
The polynomial equation in question is of degree 16 (given by the 17th cyclotomic polynomial).
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If $\Omega X \simeq \Omega Y$ then is $X \simeq Y$ for $X,Y$ simply connected?
As written, this is false. What follows from Whitehead is that given a map $f: X\to Y$ between connected spaces, which induces an equivalence on loop spaces, it was an equivalence to begin with. This follows for example also from the fact that loop space and the bar construction constitute inverse equivalences between connected spaces and grouplike $\mathbb{E} _1$-spaces.
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$K_3(\mathbb{Z})$ and $\pi ^S_3$
There is a map of spectra $\mathbb{S}\to K(\mathbb{Z})$. I'm not completely sure, but I'd expect it to be injective on $\pi_3$.
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Is Multilinear Hilbert's tenth problem version undecidable?
Just write "there is a computable function $d(f)$ such that for all $f$..."
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Are simplicial finite CW complexes and simplicial finite simplicial sets equivalent?
In Tyler's example, can't we just observe that for any finite simplicial set $K$, only finitely many maps on $\pi_1$ are induced by endomorphisms $K\to K$? This is because there are only finitely many maps $K\to K$ in total.
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Numbers representable as in the famous IMO question number 6 (1988)
Yes it is. He explained how the trivial solution $(a, b) =(0, n) $, which was excluded in the question, gives rise to a solution in positive integers $(a, b)=(n^3,n)$ for any $n$.
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Diffeomorphic but not isotopic symplectic forms
Ah, my bad, I didn't see the condition that the classes are cohomologous.
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Diffeomorphic but not isotopic symplectic forms
Doesn't the same style of counterexample still work? Take a closed oriented 2-manifold, let $\omega_1$ be some volume form and $\psi$ an orientation reversing diffeomorphism. For example, take the antipode map on $S^2$.