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Simon Wadsley's user avatar
Simon Wadsley's user avatar
Simon Wadsley's user avatar
Simon Wadsley
  • Member for 15 years, 2 months
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Why should the tensor product of $\mathcal{D}_X$-modules over $\mathcal{O}_X$ be a $\mathcal{D}_X$-module?
Sorry. Final sentence should read: The second of these cancels your Term 1 the third your Term 2 and the first would cancel your Term 5 if you had the correct relation in the Weyl algebra namely [d,x]=1[d,x]=1 rather than [x,d]=1[x,d]=1.
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Why should the tensor product of $\mathcal{D}_X$-modules over $\mathcal{O}_X$ be a $\mathcal{D}_X$-module?
I apologise for being scary; it is not intentional. Terms 3 and 4 should be $-((dx)(f))(m)=(-d(xf))(m)=-d((xf)(m))+(xf)(dm)$ and this is $-f(m)-xd(f(m))+(xf)(dm)$. The second of these cancels your Term 1 the third your Term 2 and the first would cancel your Term 1 if you had the correct relation in the Weyl algebra namely $[d,x]=1$ rather than $[x,d]=1$.
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Why should the tensor product of $\mathcal{D}_X$-modules over $\mathcal{O}_X$ be a $\mathcal{D}_X$-module?
Go to under what operation? You now seem to be asking for much more than your original question.
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Why should the tensor product of $\mathcal{D}_X$-modules over $\mathcal{O}_X$ be a $\mathcal{D}_X$-module?
Doesn't the claim in the first paragraph depend on the formula. The reference arxiv.org/abs/dg-ga/9702008 claims that $(\frac{d}{dx}(f))(m)=\frac{d}{dx}(f(m)) - f(\frac{d}{dx}m)$ works. Proposition 1.2.9 of this book math.columbia.edu/~scautis/dmodules/hottaetal.pdf agrees
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Why should the tensor product of $\mathcal{D}_X$-modules over $\mathcal{O}_X$ be a $\mathcal{D}_X$-module?
There are lots of questions here. What exactly do you mean by the $\mathcal{O}_X$-dual of a left $\mathcal{D}_X$-module $\mathcal{M}$? Do you mean the left $\mathcal{D}_X$-module $\mathrm{Hom}_{\mathcal{O}_X}(\mathcal{M},\mathcal{O}_X)$? What do you mean by 'construct the category of $D$-modules in a canonical way? What is non-canonical about the usual construction? I think you must mean more by 'construct the category' than I understand.
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Continuous backpack with multiple choice items. NP prove
Why does it seem that the problem can be reduced? Have you read it somewhere? If so, where?
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Uniform pro-p groups as a semi-direct product
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When is a map from a logarithmic tangent bundle to a normal bundle surjective?
Thanks again. In fact this has made me realise that my question wasn't quite stated correctly. I really wanted to assume $Y$ is smooth rather than $X$. I think this is what I need for my claim that $\iota^\ast \mathcal{T}_X\to \mathcal{N}_{Y/X}$ is surjective. I'll edit the question. If you want to make appropriate changes/delete comments about smoothness then I'll do the same.
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When is a map from a logarithmic tangent bundle to a normal bundle surjective?
I see. Thanks for that reference. I'm not sure I understand where you are using $Y$ is smooth as a stronger statement than the statement that $\iota^\ast\mathcal{T}_X\to \mathcal{N}_{Y/X}$ is itself surjective.
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