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I believe (this agrees with Peter Scholze's "Perfectoid Spaces," at least, and a quick glance at Torsion didn't find anything suggesting otherwise) that the morphisms in the category of perfectoid spaces are simply the morphisms of adic spaces between perfectoid spaces.
I can see the script M now (I am now on my phone), so I think it was originally just M, but either way I'm seeing the script M now so I have no complaints!
"Since clearly $\operatorname{Gal}(M/L)\cong\operatorname{Gal}(M/L)$..." Your identification $M = M\{\{T\}\}$ is confusing. I think you'd help your question by using $\tilde M$ or $M'$ to represent $M\{\{T\}\}$ instead of $M$, seeing as $M$ already has meaning.
You've given me a good bit to think about; I'll probably come back and accept this later after some thought about the counterexample and the comments, and I might wind up posting another related question once I think about what exactly will be done to fix the issue. Thanks Qiaochu!
@QiaochuYuan: This is in analogy with showing that $Lex(\mathcal A,\mathsf{Ab})$ is an abelian category in the proof of the Freyd-Mitchell embedding theorem, so I really do want $Lex(\mathcal B,\mathsf{Set}_*)$ (or at least, the proofs/references I have for F-M use $Lex(\mathcal A,\mathsf{Ab})$ rather than $Lex(\mathcal A^{op},\mathsf{Ab})$).
I just realized my earlier comment was a bit ambiguous: I don't have reason to believe that all the subquestions have answers in the affirmative, but rather that I have reason to think that $Lex(\mathcal B,\mathsf{Set}_*)$ is $\mathbb F_1$-linear.